another weird maths question!!
ok, here we go agen...
maths has once again succeded in leading me 2 a dead end
here is the problem:
prove that if:
f(r)=r!, then f(r+1) - f(r)=r*r!
where f(r) is a function and * means multiply
then the next part is to sum the series:
1*1! + 2*2! + 3*3! ........ + n*n!
i think the summing part may require the difference method ( i can explain that if need be in a later post), however i could be wrong
if ne1 knows how to prove it, i would be grateful, thanks in advance
also i will be givin reps 2 those who help constructively
Murder For a Jar of Red Rum!
failure 2 prepare, is preparing 2 fail, :(
if you keep doing things the way they've always been done, then you'll keep getting the things you've always got