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another weird maths question!!

ok, here we go agen...

maths has once again succeded in leading me 2 a dead end

here is the problem:

prove that if:

f(r)=r!, then f(r+1) - f(r)=r*r!

where f(r) is a function and * means multiply

then the next part is to sum the series:

1*1! + 2*2! + 3*3! ........ + n*n!

i think the summing part may require the difference method ( i can explain that if need be in a later post), however i could be wrong

if ne1 knows how to prove it, i would be grateful, thanks in advance

also i will be givin reps 2 those who help constructively

Murder For a Jar of Red Rum!

failure 2 prepare, is preparing 2 fail, :(

if you keep doing things the way they've always been done, then you'll keep getting the things you've always got

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